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Why do Christians defend the immorality of the Christian god as depicted in the Bible ?
in Religion
Arguments
The unexamined thought is not worth thinking.
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  Entity Sentiment Detection: Bible’s times    Harsh treatment   definition of slavery   Harsh treatment of slaves  
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"God burns down a whole city (women and children included) simply because they were supposedly homosexual. (Genesis 19:23-25)"
I will come back to this one. I don't have an article about this yet.
"Q: In Gen 19, was the sin of Sodom and Gomorrah really a lack of hospitality as Ezekiel 16:49 says?"
"A: That is only part of the story. Some homosexuals quote Ezekiel 16:49 but ignore Ezekiel 16:50, which mentions "committing abominations." Genesis 19:5-7 emphasizes the homosexuality. Jude 7 also speaks of the "sexual immorality and perversion." Genesis 13:13 shows that Sodom’s wickedness was prior to Lot’s arrival. See When Cultists Ask p.28-29 for more info."
http://www.biblequery.org/gen.html
"God punishes children for the sins of their fathers, unto the third and fourth generations. Punishing a child for the sins of their ancestors is not very just. (Exodus 20:5 & 34:7)"
This is an example of one of those "Apparent Contradictions" that has already been shown to not be a Contradiction."Just" according to what standard? Your opinion? What makes your opinion right and not someone else's and how do you decide?
https://www.gotquestions.org/parents-sin.html
I will continue to respond to these verses when I get the chance.
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I challenge, the anti religious, to go to any church, and protest Religion in person, instead of on the internet.
Let's have a debate, in a public forum, in front of any neighborhood.
In front of the kids, the parents, and whoever else shows up?
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Yes you idiot , he was a Catholic
He was a Catholic? So what?? What's your point? He may have said he was a Catholic or made positive quotes about Christianity but nothing he actually did suggests that he was a Catholic. His actions prove to be way stronger than his words.
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God punishes children for the sins of their fathers, unto the third and fourth generations. Punishing a child for the sins of their ancestors is not very just. (Exodus 20:5 & 34:7)
First of all, "Just" according to what Standard? Second of all, this supposed contradiction has already been addressed.
https://www.gotquestions.org/sins-of-the-father.html
https://apologeticspress.org/apcontent.aspx?category=6&article=1378
"God endorses slavery. He even set up laws as to how slavery was to be carried out, and goes as far as Okaying beating them. (Exodus 21:2-6)"
Yeah, He set up laws to protect them from Harm and that they be treated fairly.
Exodus 21:2-6 is one of the most common verses that Skeptic take out of context. But, regardless, an explanation has already been provided, on several occasions.
https://answersingenesis.org/bible-questions/feedback-does-bible-encourage-masters-beat-their-slaves/
https://www.godandscience.org/apologetics/slavery_bible.html
https://www.str.org/articles/did-god-condone-slavery#.XRrcBehKhPZ
"Deeply ingrained cultural patterns don't change overnight, but must be redeemed over time. Slavery was intricately woven into the cultures of the day, so, as with divorce (neither being the situation God desired), God made rules to keep the evil of the practice to a minimum. For example, if you kidnapped someone and made him a slave, you were put to death. If a slave escaped from his master for whatever reason, you were not allowed to returnhim. If you harmed so much as a tooth of your slave, you had to let him go free—in other words, no person was allowed to keep a slave if he mistreated him or her. Slavery in Western countries would never even have gotten off the ground had these rules been followed; the first rule alone would have prevented it."
"God regulated divorce, and yet He explicitly said He hates it, so the regulation of the practice did not mean He condoned it. Therefore, one cannot assume that God's regulation of slavery meant God condoned slavery."
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