Why do Christians defend the immorality of the Christian god as depicted in the Bible ?
in Religion

Arguments

• ZeusAres42 Premium Member 281 Pts

  June 2019 edited July 2019

  Sand said:

  @ZeusAres42
  

  Excellent Reasoning.

  
  

  #1 That is the definition of slavery. Dictionaries was made in 1500s, during the civil rights movement. It is understandable why that is the definition now.

  I agree slaves in the Bible’s times was keeping someone as property, but was it against their will?

  According to the Bible, it was not, people had to choose to enslave themselves.

  Was it without remuneration or appreciation?

  According to the Bible, it was not, slaves were paid, during and after.

  This is where I ask for evidence that Biblical slavery was similar to the slavery in the USA.

  There is no other record that states otherwise. We have to go on the Bible’s information.

  Based on that information slavery was paid. Harsh treatment was released.

   You are saying people were not treated right during Biblical times. We are not saying everything went perfect during that time, people are human. People sneak and do things outside of the Law all the time. Nevertheless, the people is not the issue here. The question is on the Bible. According to the the rules in the Bible it was more than fair. If people followed the guidelines in the Bible, slavery is moral, fair, not harsh, and paid.

   #2 Harsh treatment of slaves could have existed in Israel during Biblical times. Nevertheless, we need proof. It also could not have existed in Israel during the Biblical times. And even if it did that is not what is on trial here. The Bible is on trial here. The Bible did not require people to get slaves. It outlined how the treatment should be, if they acquired slaves, if someone enslaved themselves.

   #3 If that was the case then they would have abolished it well before 1865. If ownership of people was considered immoral why wasn’t it abolished in 1492? Why not in 1776 during the signing of the Declaration of Independence? I got that information about 1865 from Wikipedia, main reason slavery was abolished was to prevent Black people from being labors in the West.

   #4 That information about slavery and incarceration was the information in the Amendment. I was not comparing it. It is in the Amendment. The people who abolished slavery compared it. There was justification in the Bible times. The Bible says if someone becomes so poor that they enslave themselves. It was like a job.

   

  Look at the question?

  >>>Why do Christians defend the immorality of the Christian god as depicted in the Bible ?  

  So this question is saying the Bible depicts God as immoral.

  That is an attack on the Bible. Not the people. I am not defending the people, I don’t know if they followed or not, I need proof. What I am doing is defending the Bible.

  The Bible did not depict God as immoral, because it required good treatment to slaves.

  That’s why I say what the Bible says.

  
  

  
  

  In any case, this wouldn't be classed as slavery according to the way it is defined which is involuntary servitude. If you are working voluntarily for another person then that isn't slavery; it's voluntary servitude.
  

  
  

  Furthermore, I would not call it an attack on God or the Bible. The bible was written by mortals and a lot of the actions during those times were done by mortals because of some belief/s in something that not falsifiable. What more is that the morality of something that is not falsifiable cannot be measured or defined. 
  

  

  
  The unexamined thought is not worth thinking.
  
  

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• IdolRocks 52 Pts

  June 2019

  @Joeseph ;
  
  

  "God burns down a whole city (women and children included) simply because they were supposedly homosexual.  (Genesis 19:23-25)"

  That is simply not true. 
  
  I will come back to this one. I don't have an article about this yet. 
  
  "Q: In Gen 19, was the sin of Sodom and Gomorrah really a lack of hospitality as Ezekiel 16:49 says?"
  
  "A: That is only part of the story. Some homosexuals quote Ezekiel 16:49 but ignore Ezekiel 16:50, which mentions "committing abominations." Genesis 19:5-7 emphasizes the homosexuality. Jude 7 also speaks of the "sexual immorality and perversion." Genesis 13:13 shows that Sodom’s wickedness was prior to Lot’s arrival. See When Cultists Ask p.28-29 for more info."
  
  http://www.biblequery.org/gen.html
  

  "God punishes children for the sins of their fathers, unto the third and fourth generations.  Punishing a child for the sins of their ancestors is not very just. (Exodus 20:5 & 34:7)"

  This is an example of one of those "Apparent Contradictions" that has already been shown to not be a Contradiction. 
  

  "Just" according to what standard? Your opinion? What makes your opinion right and not someone else's and how do you decide?

  These verses have been addressed, answered and explained on multiple occasions, and on different websites.
  
  https://www.gotquestions.org/parents-sin.html
  

  I will continue to respond to these verses when I get the chance. 

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• TKDB 187 Pts

  July 2019

  I'm going to Church tomorrow.
  
  I challenge, the anti religious, to go to any church, and protest Religion in person, instead of on the internet. 
  
  Let's have a debate, in a public forum, in front of any neighborhood.
  
  In front of the kids, the parents, and whoever else shows up? 

  

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• JakeGyllenhaal 18 Pts

  July 2019

  @Joeseph
  
  Yes you idiot , he was a Catholic 
  
  He was a Catholic? So what?? What's your point? He may have said he was a Catholic or made positive quotes about Christianity but nothing he actually did suggests that he was a Catholic. His actions prove to be way stronger than his words.  

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• JakeGyllenhaal 18 Pts

  July 2019

  @Joeseph
  
  

  God punishes children for the sins of their fathers, unto the third and fourth generations.  Punishing a child for the sins of their ancestors is not very just. (Exodus 20:5 & 34:7)

  First of all, "Just" according to what Standard? Second of all, this supposed contradiction has already been addressed. 

  https://www.gotquestions.org/sins-of-the-father.html
  

  https://apologeticspress.org/apcontent.aspx?category=6&article=1378
  

  "God endorses slavery. He even set up laws as to how slavery was to be carried out, and goes as far as Okaying beating them.  (Exodus 21:2-6)"

  Yeah, He set up laws to protect them from Harm and that they be treated fairly. 

  Exodus 21:2-6 is one of the most common verses that Skeptic take out of context. But, regardless, an explanation has already been provided, on several occasions. 
  

  https://www.revelation.co/2013/06/09/bible-says-its-okay-to-beat-your-slave-as-long-as-they-dont-die-exodus-2120-21/
  
  https://answersingenesis.org/bible-questions/feedback-does-bible-encourage-masters-beat-their-slaves/
  
  https://www.godandscience.org/apologetics/slavery_bible.html
  
  https://www.str.org/articles/did-god-condone-slavery#.XRrcBehKhPZ
  

  "Deeply ingrained cultural patterns don't change overnight, but must be redeemed over time. Slavery was intricately woven into the cultures of the day, so, as with divorce (neither being the situation God desired), God made rules to keep the evil of the practice to a minimum. For example, if you kidnapped someone and made him a slave, you were put to death. If a slave escaped from his master for whatever reason, you were not allowed to returnhim. If you harmed so much as a tooth of your slave, you had to let him go free—in other words, no person was allowed to keep a slave if he mistreated him or her. Slavery in Western countries would never even have gotten off the ground had these rules been followed; the first rule alone would have prevented it."

  "God regulated divorce, and yet He explicitly said He hates it, so the regulation of the practice did not mean He condoned it. Therefore, one cannot assume that God's regulation of slavery meant God condoned slavery."

  
  

  
  

  

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